Dryden's Drametic Poesy

  1) Do you find any difference between Aristotle's definition of Tragedy and    
  Dryden's definition of play?

Ans :- After Aristotle Dryden was the one who gave a we formed definition of Play. Both covered Imagination in their definition but in different meanings.in the definition of tragedy Aristotle talks about imitation of action. While in the definition of play Dryden talks about a just and lively image of human nature.the end of the definition of Aristotle is with Catharsis but Dryden's definition ends with Delight.

2) If you are supposed to give your personal predilection, would you be on the side of the Ancient or the Modern? Please give reasons/ 

Ans :-  I will be on the side of Ancient because they were the first they are the beginners. they bring almost all the topics in writing. however they wrote on the myths but every time has its own image. may be in their time the readers liked to read or see plays which are based on myths. we can not judge them from this point.

3) Do you think that the arguments presented in favor of the French plays and against English plays are appropriate?

Ans :-Yes, the arguments in favor of french plays and against english are apt. Lisideus argues that English tragicomedy is very absurd but its not true. In English plays they are very lively by nature and also it has plots and subplots which French drama don't have. As per Neander's argues that French drama are like lifeless and they does not have a subplots like English drama have.

 4) What would be your preference so far as poetic or prosaic dialogues are concerned in the play?

Ans :- i like prosaic dialogues in play because if you want to add poetic dialog in a play mat be you should write poetry. play in not a play for you to write it. however it is true that poetic language gives a charm to play but if poetic language will overcome prosaic language than it would not make a good effect on coming Plays.